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Free Salesforce Advanced Administrator Practice Questions with Answers

Real-difficulty Salesforce Advanced Administrator (Platform Administrator II) practice questions, free, covering all 7 domains of the official exam guide. Every question comes with a detailed explanation of the correct answer and of why each distractor fails.

Practice questions, domain by domain

Questions follow the official exam blueprint order and weighting. Try each one before opening the explanation: the reasoning about why the wrong options fail is where the real studying happens.

Security and Access

20% of exam
Question 1 of 12

United Constructors wants a help desk analyst to assign existing permission sets to users in the Field Operations role, but the analyst must not be able to create or edit permission sets or reach the rest of Setup. Which feature should the administrator use?

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Correct answer: A. Delegated Administration, with the analyst in a delegated group that lists the role and the assignable permission sets

A delegated administration group lets a non-administrator manage users in specified roles and assign only the permission sets the group explicitly lists, with no ability to create or modify those permission sets. Customize Application opens broad Setup access including permission set editing, View All Users is a read-only visibility permission, and assignment rules route leads and cases, not permissions.

Question 2 of 12

At United Constructors, an account is owned by a user in the Regional Manager role. Two users with the same profile are both in the Field Sales role, directly below Regional Manager. One of them can open the account and the other cannot. What is the most likely explanation?

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Correct answer: A. The record was shared manually with one of the two users

Two users with the same profile and the same role receive identical access from organization-wide defaults and the role hierarchy, so a difference between them points to record-level sharing such as a manual share, which grants access to a specific user or group. Organization-wide defaults apply uniformly, the role hierarchy grants access upward and not to subordinates, and field-level security controls fields, not record visibility.

Objects and Applications

19% of exam
Question 3 of 12

Consort Kompany lets accounts apply for financing, and the financial details will live in a new custom object related to Account. Only the finance team may see those records, even though all sales users can see the accounts. Which relationship type should the administrator use?

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Correct answer: A. A lookup relationship, so the custom object has its own organization-wide default and sharing

A lookup relationship keeps the child object independent, so the administrator can set its organization-wide default to Private and share it only with the finance team. Master-detail children inherit the parent account's sharing, which would expose the financial records to every account viewer. Hierarchical relationships exist only on the User object, and external lookups point to external objects.

Question 4 of 12

United Constructors has a Membership Preferences custom object. Marketing users must see every field on the record page, Support users must see only the support-related fields, and both groups must be able to report on all of the data. How should the administrator deliver this?

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Correct answer: A. Use Dynamic Forms and set visibility filters on the field sections, for example by profile or custom permission, so only Marketing sees the full set

Dynamic Forms controls what appears on the record page without touching the underlying field permissions, so Support users still have access to every field in reports. Field-level security would also remove the fields from reports, record types would change the data model for a pure display requirement, and a muting permission set removes permissions rather than adjusting page display.

Auditing and Monitoring

10% of exam
Question 5 of 12

An administrator at United Constructors built a flow that publishes a platform event each time an opportunity is updated. A developer wrote a trigger that subscribes to the event. The developer's user debug log shows the flow ran, but nothing about the subscriber appears. What should the administrator recommend?

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Correct answer: A. Set up a debug log with the Automated Process user as the traced entity

Platform event triggers run asynchronously under the Automated Process system user, not under the user who published the event, so a user-based trace flag never captures them. Debug logs can be created with Automated Process as the traced entity in Setup, which records the subscriber execution. There is no Debug Enabled checkbox on a platform event, and no third-party tool is needed.

Cloud Applications

11% of exam
Question 6 of 12

A sales rep at Consort Kompany sits in a role directly under their manager and owns several open opportunities, yet the rep does not appear in the manager's forecast. What should the administrator check first?

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Correct answer: A. Whether the Allow Forecasting setting is enabled on the rep's user record

Collaborative Forecasts only include users whose Allow Forecasting setting is enabled; without it a rep has no forecast and is absent from the rollup even when they own opportunities and sit in the right role. Owner and manager adjustments let forecast amounts be edited, and Override Forecasts belongs to the retired Customizable Forecasting, so none of them adds a user to the forecast hierarchy.

Data and Analytics Management

13% of exam
Question 7 of 12

Management at Consort Kompany wants a report showing the year-over-year change in total opportunity amount, grouped by close year. Which reporting feature calculates the change?

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Correct answer: A. A custom summary formula using PREVGROUPVAL to compare each year's total with the prior year's

PREVGROUPVAL returns the summary value of the previous grouping, so a summary formula such as SUM(Amount) minus PREVGROUPVAL(SUM(Amount), Close Year) yields each year's change over the prior year. Row-level formulas operate on a single record and cannot see other rows, a joined report shows blocks side by side without calculating across them, and PARENTGROUPVAL compares a group with its parent grouping, not its predecessor.

Question 8 of 12

Consort Kompany tracks installed equipment as Asset records related to Accounts. Sales management wants a list of customer accounts that do not yet own the new CK-200 safety sensor so reps can target them. How should the administrator build the report?

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Correct answer: A. An Accounts report with a cross filter: Accounts without Assets where Product Name equals CK-200

A cross filter using the without condition and a subfilter on the child object returns parent records that lack matching children, which is exactly accounts with no CK-200 asset. A bucketed Assets report lists accounts that do own something, PREVGROUPVAL compares groupings, and the hierarchy filter limits by owner rather than by related records.

Environment Management and Deployment

7% of exam
Question 9 of 12

An administrator at Consort Kompany prepares two outbound change sets. Change set 1 contains several new custom fields on the Project object. Change set 2 contains only the profiles that should be able to see those fields. What should the administrator keep in mind before deploying?

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Correct answer: A. Field-level security for the new fields will not deploy with the profiles in change set 2 unless the fields are included in the same change set

A profile in a change set carries only the settings for components that are also in that change set, so field permissions for the new fields deploy only when the fields and the profiles travel together. Deploying profiles first would reference fields that do not yet exist, automation activation is not tied to the change set that carries the fields, and change sets are always deployed one at a time.

Process Automation

20% of exam
Question 10 of 12

At Consort Kompany, a case auto-response rule sends Template A when Case Source equals Email and Template B when Case Source is blank. An after-save record-triggered flow sets Case Source to Email for cases created by Email-to-Case; the field is blank when the record first arrives. What happens when a case is created from an incoming email?

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Correct answer: A. The auto-response rule sends Template B, then the flow updates Case Source to Email

In the save order of execution, assignment rules and auto-response rules run before after-save record-triggered flows, so the rule evaluates the case while Case Source is still blank and sends Template B. The flow then runs and updates Case Source to Email, but the email has already gone out. To send Template A, the value would need to be set earlier, for example in a before-save flow.

Question 11 of 12

United Constructors has two record-triggered flows on the Project object. The first creates a related Inspection record when a project reaches a certain stage. The second checks whether an Inspection exists for the project and then updates a field on that Inspection. After a project is updated, the Inspection is created but the field remains blank. What should the administrator do?

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Correct answer: A. Merge the two automations into a single record-triggered flow that creates the Inspection and then updates it in sequence

When several record-triggered flows fire on the same object and no trigger order is set, Salesforce does not guarantee which one runs first, so the second flow can execute before the first has created the Inspection. Putting both steps in one flow guarantees the sequence. A flow on the child object updating the parent addresses a different field, changing the trigger type does not fix ordering, and scheduled flows would delay the update by hours.

Question 12 of 12

An administrator at United Constructors built a flow that deletes records and wants to test it with the Flow Builder debugger before activation. What should the administrator keep in mind?

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Correct answer: A. The debug run performs the delete for real, even though the flow is inactive, unless rollback mode is selected

The debugger executes the flow's data operations against the org, and activation status has no bearing on that, so a Delete Records element removes the test record unless the administrator chooses the option to roll back changes at the end of the debug run. Flows with delete elements are fully debuggable, and records they delete follow the normal path to the Recycle Bin.

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